Asked • 05/24/19

Implication of the concavity of u?

>Suppose that we have the following inequality: >$u( y- d) - u(y-d') \\ge u(y' - d) - u( y' -d')$.>The concavity of $u$ together with $y\\le y'$ then implies that $d \\le d'$.I sometimes come across this problem in economic papers, but I don't understand the logic behind this. Can anyone explain this?

1 Expert Answer

By:

Hanna H. answered • 05/11/20

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Experienced Economist

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