Toyin L. answered 05/15/19
Masters in Mathematics with 10+ years of tutoring experience
I believe you meant that (a-b) is a factor of (ak-bk) for k an integer . It is better to show this because if you show it is true for (ak-bk) you will show that it is true for all number so it will be true for a2-b2 , a3-b3, ...a100- b100, etc. The steps for mathematical induction are:
- Show it is true for the base case k=1
- Assume it is true for the kth case
- Show that is true for the (k+1)th case
Lets start!
- Let k=1 (then (a1-b1) = (a-b) which is clearly a factor of (a-b) .That is because a number is clearly divisible by itself.
- Assume (a-b) is a factor of (ak-bk)
- Lastly we show that (a-b) is a factor of (ak+1-bk+1)
We have (ak+1- bk+1) = a (ak-bk) + bk(a-b) . We ASSUME that (a-b) is a factor of (ak-bk) so it will be a factor of the first term of you given info , a(ak-bk) which is a multiple of (ak-bk). The second term in your given information, bk(a-b) is a multiple of (a-b) since it is a number (bk) multiplied by (a-b) . Since both terms have (a-b) as a factor the sum of both terms will have (a-b) as a factor so that proves that (a-b) is a factor of (ak+1- bk+1). Thus by the principles of mathematical induction (a-b) is a factor of ak-bk for all integers k and therefore (a-b) is a factor of (a2-b2)
Q.E.D