Asked • 04/04/19

Why is the verb "perceive / یشعرون" negated in two different styles in Baqarah: 9 and 12, and what's the exact difference?

The 9th and 12th verses of Baqarah read as follows: > يُخَادِعُونَ اللَّـهَ وَالَّذِينَ آمَنُوا وَمَا يَخْدَعُونَ إِلَّا أَنفُسَهُمْ وَمَا يَشْعُرُونَ> > They would trick God and believers, and only themselves they deceive> and they do not perceive [this].> > أَلَا إِنَّهُمْ هُمُ الْمُفْسِدُونَ وَلَـٰكِن لَّا يَشْعُرُونَ> > Truly, they are the workers of corruption, but they do not perceive> [this].From a native Arabian's viewpoint, how these two styles of negation (i.e. ما یشعرون and لا یشعرون) can possibly be different? I know there can be no big semantic difference, yet what about any fine one?

1 Expert Answer

By:

Safouane S. answered • 09/19/19

Safouane: Arabic-French

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