Let f(x)=x and g(x)=x^2-16).
g is non-positive on [-1,1]
therefore the MV theorem applies
the integral from -1 to 1 of f(x)g(x)=0
since f(0)=0, x=0 satisfies the MV theorem
Mack F.
asked 04/03/18
Get a free answer to a quick problem.
Most questions answered within 4 hours.
Choose an expert and meet online. No packages or subscriptions, pay only for the time you need.