
Black C.
asked 08/07/17prove that mg sin theta is equal to mg tan theta when sin theta is almost equal to theta in radians
It's about an experiment that asks you to determine the free-fall acceleration, g , using simple pendulum
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2 Answers By Expert Tutors
Isaac C. answered 08/09/17
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I like Arturo O's answer. I am going to propose another one. We want to demonstrate that for small angles sin(x) = tan(x)
To show that to be true let's look at the ratio of sin(x)/cos(x) as x approaches 0 (small angle approximation)
lim sin(x)/tan(x) = lim [sin(x) / (sin(x)/cos(x))] = lim x->0 cos(x) = 1;
So for small angles sin(x)/tan(x) is nearly 1, and sin(x) is nearly equal to tan(x)

Arturo O. answered 08/07/17
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That is equivalent to proving that sinθ ≅ tanθ, which is true only for θ << 1 radian. (It is not true in general.) To see that this holds for very small θ, you could look at the power series for sin(x).
sin(x) = x - x3/3! + x5/5! - x7/7! + ...
For very small x, drop terms of order x2 or higher. Then
sin(x) ≅ x for x << 1
Similarly,
cos(x) = √(1 - sin2x) ≅ √(1 - x2) for very small x. You can use the approximation
√(1 - x2) ≅ 1 - (1/2)x2,
which is valid for very small x. For very small x, drop terms of order x2 and above. Then
cos(x) ≅ 1 for x << 1
You are left with
tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x) ≅ x/1 = x
tan(x) ≅ sin(x) ≅ x for very small x. This is the "linearizing approximation" used frequently in dynamics problems when the angles are very small compared to 1 radian.
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Mark M.
08/07/17