If f(x)=(x^2-x)/(x-1) and g(x)=x is it true that f=g? 1/12/2013 | Youlanda from Sterling Heights, MI | 1 Answer | 0 Votes Mark favorite Subscribe Comment

While (x^2-x)/(x-1) does simplify to x, it is not true that g(x) and f(g) are not equivalent. Because f(x)=x except at x=1 and is undefined at x=1. Meanwhile g(1)=1. 1/12/2013 | Brendon H. Comment Comments I think that means yes and no: f=g for every value except x=1 1/12/2013 | Bill F. Comment

## Comments

I think that means yes and no: f=g for every value except x=1