
Brendon H. answered 01/12/13
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Math Tutor w/20 Years Experience (Hablo Espanol)
While (x^2-x)/(x-1) does simplify to x, it is not true that g(x) and f(g) are not equivalent. Because f(x)=x except at x=1 and is undefined at x=1. Meanwhile g(1)=1.

Bill F.
I think that means yes and no: f=g for every value except x=1
01/12/13