Tripp B. answered 03/28/24
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Since there are no draws, the outcomes are wins/losses which means that the binomial distribution is a good way to model this assuming that the individuals matches are independent (this may or may not be a good assumption in real life, but lets roll with it).
The expected value for the binomial is k*p where k is the number of trials (games in our case) and p is the probability of success. The variance of the binomial is kp(1-p). In your case, k=5, so the expected number of games would be 5p and the variance would be 5p(1-p).