
David W. answered 06/10/16
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This question introduces (1) correlation vs. cause-and-effect, (2) income/spending, (3) sickness and care of children.
A Rolls Royce is a very expensive car. To drive it, one must have lots of money and seek a status symbol.
Now, the money variable becomes a "linkage" between the car variable and the sickness variable. It is presumed that there is a negative correlation between money and sickness. That is, wealthy people can pay more easily for medical care (both preventative and corrective) and thus their children do not get sick as often -- more money, less sickness.
Note that there may be additional "linkage variables," for example, whether wealthy people care as much for their children as poor people do. The psychology of wealth is complicated, but the psychology of relationships may be more complicated.
This question might be better worded, "How might there be a negative correlation between ..." No evidence has been given that such a negative correlation actually exists.