Shradha S. answered 08/07/15
Tutor
4
(1)
Experienced Maths Teacher with Master's Degree in Mathematics
If g(x) = 1/x
then g(x+h) = 1/(x+h) ,(replacing x by x+h on both side)
So,
(g(x+h) - g(x))/h = ( 1/(x+h) - 1/x ) / h
= ( x/x(x+h) - (x+h)/x(x+h) )/ h ( take LCM )
= ( ( x-x-h)/x(x+h) ) / h
=( -h/ x(x+h) )/ h
= -h/ (xh(x+h))
= -1 /x(x+h)
Kaleb M.
In one of the solutions. G of ‘x’ is over (x+h) I understand why 1/x would take its place over the ‘x’. But what rule makes it so the (x+h) is distributed? I’m just curious and really would love to learn how this works10/25/19