Louis B. answered 3d
4.0 GPA Business Analytics Grad & Incoming Corporate Finance Analyst
Hey there! I can absolutely help you break this corporate finance and valuation problem down step-by-step. Since this is an all-equity company that pays out all its free cash flow as dividends, we can treat this exactly like a Dividend Discount Model (DDM) with constant growth.
Here is the exact framework and the steps I would use to solve each part of this problem.
First lets find r from CAPM
r = Rf + B(Mkt Risk Premium)
r = 4% + 2(7%)
Fair price of FAB in year 0
Po = Div1 / (r - g)
Div 1 = year 1 FCF / shares outstanding
Div 1 = $10M / 1M
Po = 10 / (18% - 5%)
Po is your answer
Fair price of FAB in year 1
g stays at 5%
P1 = Po * (1 + g)
Expected Return from year 0 to year 1
73 because you are buying the shares today at current mkt rate
Expected Return = (Div1 + P1 - 73) / 73
Cost of Capital & CAPM alpha
Because the entire portfolio consists of FAB stock, the discount rate from CAPM will be the exact same as the Cost of Capital. so r
alpha = Expected Return - r
NPV = (Po - 73) * 10,000