Ariel B. answered 10/20/23
A Teaching-and-Academic Awards winner, UPenn PhD top graduate
Kevin,'
There are a few basic tools [or Rules] that you could use in different combinations to solve each problem (A ,B below are functions of a variable x, A' is dA(x)/dx etc.)
1) (A/B)'= (A' B-B' A)/B2
2) A'(cx)=cA'(x) [c is a constant number ("coefficient")]
3) sinh'(x)=cosh(x) ; cosh'(x)=sinh(x)
4) A(B(x))'=A'(B(x))B'(x)
5) Arctan(x)'=1/1+x2
6) Use definitions of tanh(x), cotanh(x), sech(x) and cosech(x)
7) cosh2(x)-sinh2(x)=1
Try that out and that way you would be able to solve any problem like those
I'd show below as an example the step by step solution of pr #7 [they use z as a variable instead of x that I used for the Rules above]
f(z) = Arctan (sinh 6z) [For using the Rules above, use A would be the function Arctan, B - the function sinh , the coefficient c is 6
f(z)'=[use Rules# 5,4,2]=1/(1+[sinh(6z)]2)*cosh(6z)*6=
[now use Rule #7]=[1/cosh2(6z)]*cosh(6z)*6=6/cosh(6z)=[Use Rule#6] =6sech(6z)
An Addendum: If you wonder where the rule #5 is coming from:
- Atan(x)=tan-1(x) [Atan is inverse of tan] (a)
- Use the "Derivative of inverse f-1(x)" rule
[f-1(x)]'=[1/f'(y)]f(y)=x (b)
as follows
Atan'(x)=[1/tan'(y)]tan(y)=x (c)
Because tan'(y)=1/cos2(y) (d)
[you could derive (d) for practice using some of the Rules 1-7 but modified to apply them for trigonometric (sin, cos etc) instead of hyperbolic ,(sh, ch etc.) functions]
Using a trigonometric identity
cos2(y)=1/[1+tan2(y)]
[again, for your practice, try to derive this one using definitions of cos and sin and Pythagorean theorem]
you'd get
1/cos2(y)=[1+tan2(y)] (e)
Therefore from (d) and (e)
tan'(y)=1/cos2(y)=[1+tan2(y)] (f)
so from (b)
Arctan'(x)=[1/tan'(y)]tan(y)=x=
{1/[1+tan2(y)]}tan(y)=x=1/(1+x2) (g)
Hope this would be helpful and show you how to use problem solving to learn/review the material. This is one of the tools I use in my class teaching as well as in tutoring sessions.
Good luck Kevin,
Dr.Ariel B.