Joshua G.

asked • 08/22/22

Why does definite integral have the operation subtraction? Does the definite integral always have to involve finding the area and if not, why?

For example

f' or f prime = [f(b) - f(a)] ÷ (b - a) = The integral from a to b

and f'(x)dx or f prime dx Divided by (b - a)


No area is being found. I hope there are better examples. I'm sorry

2 Answers By Expert Tutors

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William W. answered • 08/22/22

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Experienced Tutor and Retired Engineer

Raymond B. answered • 08/22/22

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