Sai T. answered 09/23/21
If f is a one-to-one function, then its inverse function, f−1, is well-defined.
f−1:R→R If f is a one-to-one function, then its inverse function, f−1, is well-defined.
Suppose, for example :
f:R→R
x↦f(x)=y
Then f−1 do the opposite/reverse :
y↦f−1(y)=x
Thus, if f(x)=y, then f−1(f(x))=f−1(y)=x.
Therefore, if f(2)=8, you apply f−1 to both sides and you get :
f−1(f(2))=f−1(8)=2.