Nii L.

asked • 06/23/20

Let (G, *) be a group. Prove that the map π : G → G defined by π(g) = g * g is a homomoprhism if and only if G is abelian

Let (G, *) be a group. Prove that the map π : G → G defined by π(g) = g * g is a

homomoprhism if and only if G is abelian

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