Asked • 05/22/19

What can the variability of strength be between different brands of supposedly identical medications?

I remember reading that medications are within allowable specs if the contain +/- 30% of the labelled strength. I can't find the source of that information in order to check its validity.If that is the case, a 100mg pill would be considered to be within allowable tolerances if it has 70-130mg of the active ingredient.This could mean a 60% change in active ingredient if a patient switches from one brand to another, or if a manufacturer changes its manufacturing process.What is the allowed variability for prescription medications?

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