
Barry G. answered 07/23/19
Attorney and Adjunct Professor
Not quite sure what you mean by "intent"... you may wish to rephrase the question. Normally, contract formation is an objective standard. One's "secret" intent is not dispositive. If the parties' objectively manifested an intent to be bound, a contract will result. Of course, there are any number of things that may be deemed to have "destroyed" mutual assent... e.g., fraud. The foregoing is offered for the general interest of the reader. It is NOT legal advice or opinion and the comment does NOT create an attorney-client relationship.