Asked • 04/20/19

Why did not former epochs distinguish between 'art' and 'craft'?

<sub>Source: p. 18 Middle, [*Beauty: A Very Short Introduction* (2011)](https://www.amazon.co.uk/Beauty-Short-Introduction-Roger-Scruton/dp/0199229759) by Roger Scruton.</sub>>That said, we should recognize that the distinction betweenaesthetic and utilitarian interests is no more clear than thelanguage used to define it. What exactly is meant by those who saywe are interested in a work of art *for its own sake*, on account of its*intrinsic* value, as *an end in itself* ? These terms are philosophicaltechnicalities, which indicate no clear contrast between aestheticinterest and the utilitarian approach that is imposed on us by theneeds of everyday decision making. **[1.]** Other epochs did not recognizethe distinction that we now so frequently make between art andcraft. **[End of 1.]** Our word ‘poetry’ comes from Greek *poiēsis*, the skill ofmaking things; the Roman *artes* comprised every kind of practicalendeavour. And to take our second platitude about beautyseriously is to be sceptical towards the whole idea of the beautifulas a realm apart, untainted by mundane practicalities.The entitled question is based on 1 above which lacks an explanation.

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Julie P. answered • 08/18/21

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