Asked • 03/18/19

Why did composers write atonally?

Can anyone tell me the best justifications for writing atonally by the composers who did so? Did anyone, including Schoenberg, explain what "freeing the dissonance" means? Does it imply that he believed that dissonance (and hence consonance) is a social construct?

3 Answers By Expert Tutors


Samantha Z. answered • 02/18/20

5 (6)

PhD in musicology; music theory adjunct at multiple colleges

David W. answered • 06/11/19

5.0 (116)

PhD in Music Composition with 5+ Years of Teaching Experience

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