Arthur D. answered 11/23/18
Forty Year Educator: Classroom, Summer School, Substitute, Tutor
(a^2-b^2)/(a-b)>(a^2+b^2)/(a+b) because of the following....
(a^2-b^2)/(a-b)=(a-b)(a+b)/(a-b)=(a+b)
(a+b)/1=(a+b)(a+b)/(1)(a+b)=(a^2+2ab+b^2)/(a+b)
(a^2+2ab+b^2)/(a+b)>(a^2+b^2)/(a+b) because (a^2+2ab+b^2)>(a^2+b^2) by 2ab more
Kenan D.
thanks sir11/25/18