
Dayv O. answered 03/09/25
Caring Super Enthusiastic Knowledgeable Calculus Tutor
For the area beneath y=ln(x) to x-axis
see Mark's answer, and use definite integral.
from x=1 to x=e the area =[e*1-e]-[1*0-1]=1 sq unit.
from x=1 to arbitrary x>1 the area =[xlnx-x]-[1*0-1]=xlx-x+1+1,,,kind of cool, like 'rectangle-x" plus 1
For area beneath y=log10 (x) to x-axis
see Doug's answer and use definite integral
from x=1 to x=10 the area =[10*1-(10/ln10)]-[1*0-(1/ln10)]=10-(9/ln(10))