
Metin E. answered 04/11/24
Experienced Community College Teacher Specializing in Statistics
The limit is indeed zero.
There are a few different ways that you could go about showing this result.
This is just one way to go about it (not necessarily the best one):
break the sequence into two
cn = [ln (n) + (-1)n] / (3n2 + 1) = an + bn
where
an = ln (n) / (3n2 + 1) and bn = (-1)n / (3n2 + 1)
bn converges to 0 because the denominator goes to infinity while the numerator is finite.
You can also check that it satisfies the conditions for the convergence of an alternating sequence.
For an, consider the real valued function instead of the sequence and use L'Hopital's to show that the function converges.
That is, define the function f by f(x) = ln (x) / (3x2 + 1) and use L'Hopital's to show that f goes to 0 as x goes to infinity, which leads to the conclusion that an goes to 0 as n goes to infinity.
Since an and bn both go to 0 as n goes to infinity,
so does cn