Pauline Y.

asked • 10/03/23

Ali, a calculus student, writes the following explanation for why the limit lim𝑥→0[𝑥^4⋅cos(2/3𝑥)] is zero

Ali, a calculus student, writes the following explanation for why the limit lim𝑥→0[𝑥4⋅cos(2/3𝑥)] is zero:


Since lim𝑥→0 𝑥4=0 we conclude, from the basic limit laws, that

lim𝑥→0[𝑥4⋅cos(2/3𝑥)]=(lim𝑥→0x4)•[lim𝑥→0cos(2/3𝑥)]=0•[lim𝑥→0cos(2/3𝑥)]=0


What is wrong with Ali's explanation? How would you correct it


2 Answers By Expert Tutors

By:

Dayv O.

when x=.01 and nearby, the fluctuations are -10^-8 to +10^-8, when x=.001 and near by the fluctuations are from -10^-12 to +10^-12, I think the limit is zero, not limit is undefined.
Report

10/04/23

Dayv O.

Formally, it is an application of the squeeze theorem.
Report

10/04/23

William C.

tutor
What you're saying makes sense. Thanks for the input!
Report

10/04/23

Still looking for help? Get the right answer, fast.

Ask a question for free

Get a free answer to a quick problem.
Most questions answered within 4 hours.

OR

Find an Online Tutor Now

Choose an expert and meet online. No packages or subscriptions, pay only for the time you need.