I would argue as follows:
f(x)=1/(1+x) is antisymmetric about x=-1, that is f(-1-h) = -f(-1+h)
Therefore the integral of f(x) from -2 to 0 is algebraically 0....despite the fact that the function is unbounded on that interval. I am not sure that this argument "holds water", that is, I don't know how to prove this analytically.
However, if this is true, then the integral you want is simply the integral from 0 to 3 of f(x) which is 4.

Roger R.
12/16/22