Mark M. answered 12/03/22
Retired math prof. Calc 1, 2 and AP Calculus tutoring experience.
Since cos(π/2) = 0, the given limit is equivalent to limh→0 [(cos(π/2+h) - cos(π/2)) / h], which is the derivative of cosx evaluated at π/2. So, the value of the limit is -1.