
Jonathan T. answered 10/26/23
10+ Years of Experience from Hundreds of Colleges and Universities!
To determine which statement must be true, let's analyze the given information:
We are given that for all positive integers n (greater than or equal to 1), 0 < b_n < a_n, and that the limit as n approaches infinity of a_n is 0.
Now, let's consider the options:
1. **If the limit as n approaches infinity of a_n is 0, then the series with the upper limit of infinity and the lower limit of 1 for the function b_n converges.**
This statement is not necessarily true. The limit of a_n being 0 doesn't directly imply that the series of b_n will converge. The behavior of b_n, especially in relation to its series, isn't defined by the limit of a_n alone.
2. **If the series with the upper limit of infinity and the lower limit of 1 for the function b_n converges, then the limit as n approaches infinity of b_n is 0.**
This statement is generally not true. Convergence of a series does not necessarily mean that the individual terms in the sequence (b_n) tend to 0 as n approaches infinity.
3. **If the series with the upper limit of infinity and the lower limit of 1 for the function b_n diverges, then the limit as n approaches infinity of a_n is 0.**
This statement is also not necessarily true. The behavior of a_n, especially in relation to its series, isn't defined by the divergence of b_n's series.
4. **If the series with the upper limit of infinity and the lower limit of 1 for the function a_n diverges, then the series with the upper limit of infinity and the lower limit of 1 for the function b_n diverges.**
This statement is generally true. If the series of a_n diverges, and if 0 < b_n < a_n for all n, then the series of b_n will also diverge because the terms of b_n are always less than the corresponding terms of a_n. In other words, b_n can't be smaller than a_n and still result in a convergent series when a_n itself diverges.
5. **If the series with the upper limit of infinity and the lower limit of 1 for the function b_n converges, then the series with the upper limit of infinity and the lower limit of 1 for the function a_n converges.**
This statement is not necessarily true. The convergence of b_n's series doesn't imply the convergence of a_n's series, as the individual terms of b_n being smaller than a_n doesn't guarantee this.
So, the statement that must be true in this case is **Option 4**:
**If the series with the upper limit of infinity and the lower limit of 1 for the function a_n diverges, then the series with the upper limit of infinity and the lower limit of 1 for the function b_n also diverges.**