Mark M. answered 10/06/21
Retired math prof. Calc 1, 2 and AP Calculus tutoring experience.
You can also do this problem without using messy algebra.
Recall that f'(x) = limh→0 [(f(x+h) - f(x)) / h]
So, if we let f(x) = 4 / (1+x)2 and let x = 0 (so f(0) = 4), then the given limit is equal to f'(0).
f(x) = 4(1+x)-2 So, f'(x) = -8(1+x)-3 = -8 / (1+x)3
Therefore, f'(0) = -8