Asked • 07/20/21

how is that if 1/cos(x) +1/sin(x)=√2 it must be that cos^3(x)+sin^3(x)= -(1/√2)

This is a problem from a book published in 1930, by authors Durell&Robson

Advanced Trigonometry, it is a problem from the last chapter

again, show if

1/cos(x) +1/sin(x)=√2

then cos3(x)+sin3(x)= -(1/√2)

It is not hard numerically to say cos3(x)+sin3(x) equals about -.707

hint sin(2x)=1-√3

so with some discernment can conlude x is a certain radian angle x

and that will compute to about -.707= cos3(x)+sin3(x)

but it takes advanced trigonometry and advanced algebra to prove

when 1/cos(x) +1/sin(x)=√2

then exactly cos3(x)+sin3(x)= -(1/√2)

2 Answers By Expert Tutors

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Dayv O. answered • 07/20/21

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Caring Super Enthusiastic Knowledgeable Trigonometry Tutor

Doug C. answered • 07/20/21

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Dayv O.

I like the sin^3 +cos^3 formula, and I think it simplifies the answer I gave. But there is a mistake. sinx*cosx cannot be greater than or even equal to 1. You have sinx*cosx=1.36.
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07/20/21

Doug C.

Ahh, yes, I agree. Should have rejected the (1+sqrt(3))/2 as an extraneous root, and just tested (1-sqrt(3))/2
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07/20/21

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