Tom K. answered 03/12/21
Knowledgeable and Friendly Math and Statistics Tutor
Let f(u) = arctan u on [0, x]
Then, from the mean value theorem, there is a value c on [0, x] such that f'(c) = (arctan(x)-arctan(0))/(x - 0) = arctan(x)/x
f'(c) = 1/(c^2+1)
1/(c^2+1) = arctan(x)/x
Then, arctan(x) = x/(c^2+ 1) > x/(x^2 + 1)
Using i[0, x] as the integral from 0 to x,
As 1/(x^2+1) < 1 on (0, x] and arctan(x) = I[0, x] 1/(x^2+1) dx, arctan(x) < I[0, x] 1 dx = x
x/x^2+1 < arctan x < x