Tom N. answered 02/09/21
Strong proficiency in elementary and advanced mathematics
The inverse Laplace transform of F(s) is f(t). Let 1/((s+a)(s+b)) =A/(s+a) +B/(s+b) and now 1=A(s+b)+B(s+a) so 1 =As+Ab +Bs+Ba. Now match coefficients. Hence 1=Ab+Ba and 0= A+B since there is no s term on the left side of the equation. Therefore A=-B and uisng this in the other equation 1= Ab-Aa and A(b-a)=1 so A= 1/(b-a) and B=-1/(b-a). So now taking the inverse transform of both sides gives f(t) = £-1((1/(b-a)(1/(s+a) -1/(s+b))) which gives f(t)= (1/(b-a))(e-at-
e-bt).