why does (fg)' ≠ f'g'

Inactive Tutor answered • 11/01/20

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Because derivate are not additive.

Say (x**4)'=(x*x*x*x)'= 4x**3

However, x'*x'*x'*x'=1*1*1*1=1.

It does not make sense here if (fg)'=f'*g', right?

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