
Bradford T. answered 11/01/20
Retired Engineer / Upper level math instructor
To prove that (fg)' ≠ f'g' you have to go back to the fundamental definition of a derivative:
To make typing easier let L mean lim h → 0
L (f(x+h)g(f+h) - f(x)g(x))/h
For any equation, you can always add a zero without changing the equation.
L (f(x+h)g(f+h) + 0 - f(x)g(x))/h
Note that if we add f(x)g(x+h) - f(x)g(x+h) is the same as adding zero.
L (f(x+h)g(f+h) + f(x)g(x+h) - f(x)g(x+h) - f(x)g(x))/h
Rearranging terms
L (g(x+h)(f(x+h) - f(x)) + f(x)(g(x+h) - g(x)))/h
Now we can distribute the limit to the two sums by limit definitions:
L g(x+h) • (f(x+h) - f(x))/h + L f(x) • (g(x+h) - g(x))/h
or
L g(x+h) • L (f(x+h) -f(x))/h + L (f(x) • L (g(x+h) - g(x))/h
Note the L (f(x+h) -f(x))/h = f ' (x) and L (g(x+h) - g(x))/h = g'(x)
Also L g(x+h) = g(x)
So rewriting with these definitions
(fg)' = g f ' + f g ' ≠ f 'g '
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For some special, odd cases, (fg)' = f ' g' and some articles have fun showing which odd functions that works for. But generally (fg)' = g f ' + f g '.