
Mike D. answered 10/23/20
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Answer 2.
Reason f(4) = f(-4) + integral of f'(x) from -4 to + 4
The integral is the area between f'(x) and the x axis from x = -4 to + 4
(areas under the x - axis being negative)
If you look at the graph above, this area consists of two triangles, whose areas are the same, but when we add them together it gives the integral being zero (because one triangle is below the x axis).
So f(4) = f(-4) + 0 = 2