Mark M. answered 10/23/20
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Retired math prof. Calc 1, 2 and AP Calculus tutoring experience.
Recall that f'(x) = limh→0 [(f(x+h) - f(x)) / h]
So, if we let f(x) = sin(πx) and x = 2, then the given limit is f'(2).
Since f'(x) = πcos(πx), f'(2) = πcos(2π) = π