Mark M. answered • 09/18/20
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f(x) = 1/x is discontinuous at x = 0.
The theorem does not hold.
Kyle C.
asked • 09/18/20What is wrong with this reasoning?
What is wrong with this reasoning:
“If f(x) = 1/x then f(–1) = –1 and f(1) = 1. Because f(–1) and f(1) have opposite signs, f has a root between x = –1 and x = 1.”
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