Lin T.

asked • 08/25/20

Can I Improve my answer?

lim x -> inf [ (1-cosxcos2xcos3x) / (1-cosx) ]

(x approaches to +infinity)

My answer: = (1 - cos(pi).cos(2pi).cos(3pi)) / (1 - cos(pi)) = (1 - [(-1).1.(-1)] ) / (1 - (-1)) = (1 - 1) / (2) = 0/2 = 0


Hello, I have just put "pi" where I have seen X's and, the end result was 0/2 = 0, is this a correct way to solve this limit? Are there any other methods?

Kevin S.

tutor
Oh, if x just goes to π, then yes you just plug in π. That is THE limit law: if it's continuous, just plug it in. (It is continuous when x is far from multiples of 2π.)
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08/25/20

1 Expert Answer

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Yefim S. answered • 08/25/20

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5 (20)

Math Tutor with Experience

Lin T.

Sorry, I cannot edit the original post. X goes to Pi in the question.
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08/25/20

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