Tom K. answered 07/25/20
Knowledgeable and Friendly Math and Statistics Tutor
a) Rather than integrate ln(1+x) from 0 to 1/2, I shall integrate ln(x) from 1 to 3/2
Using I[a,b] for the integral from a to b and E[a,b] for evaluation from a to b,
I[1,3/2] ln(x) dx = x ln x - x E[1, 3/2] = 3/2 ln 3/2 - 3/2 - (1 ln 1 - 1) = 3/2 ln(3/2) - 1/2 = .1082
Letting ∑ be the sum for n = 1 to infinity, the Maclaurin expansion of ln(1 + x) = ∑(-1)n+1 xn/n
As this is an alternating series, we only need to show that the next term is less than the accuracy.
Then, we integrate this from 0 to 1/2, so we get ∑(-1)n+1 xn+1/(n*(n+1))
Then, as this is an alternating series, we have to find the first term less than the accuracy requested.
(1/2)n+1/(n*(n+1)) < .0001, or
n(n+1)2n+1 > 10000
6*7*2^7 = 5376 < 10000
7*8*2^8 = 14336 > 10000
Then, we add up to n=6
(1/2)2/(1*2) - (1/2)3/(2*3) + (1/2)4/(3*4) - (1/2)5/(4*5) + (1/2)6/(5*6) - (1/2)7/(6*7) = .1081
(The actual answer is less than .1082, so we are within .0001).