
Jon S. answered 06/21/20
Patient and Knowledgeable Math and English Tutor
Since the candy bag is "extra large", we can considering the drawing of each M and M independent, drawing of a blue candy a "success", not drawing a "failures", the probability of a drawing a blue candy constant at 0.23.
To get 1st blue candy on 4th try, the first 3 tries have to be failures (probability of 0.77), so the probability of getting the first blue candy on the 4th try is (0.77)^3 * (0.23). Similarly, the probability of getting the first blue candy on the 5th try is (0.77)^4 * (0.23). The probability of getting the first blue candy on the 4th or 5th dry is the sum of those probabilities.
In determining the probability of getting the first blue candy in any of the first 4 tries, having a fixed number of tries allows us to use the binomial distribution to determine the probability: C(4,1)* (0.23) * (0.77)^3, where C(4,1) = 4!/3!1!