
Christopher J. answered 05/22/20
Berkeley Grad Math Tutor (algebra to calculus)
Alyssa:
We know that 1/(1-x) = ∑xn provided |x| <1
1/(1+x2) = 1/(1-(-x2)) in other words we are transforming 1/(1+x2) into a form that resembles 1/(1-x) so to speak.
Then 1/(1+x2) = ∑(-x2)n = ∑(-1)n*x2n This is valid for |x|<1
∑(-1)n*x2n = 1 -x2+x4-x6+....
b) We know that d/dx(tan-1(x)) = 1/(x2+1)
So tan-1(x) = ∫ ∑(-1)n *x2n dx = (-1)n* ∫∑x2n dx = (-1)n ∑x2n+1/(2n+1)
c) Plug in x=1 to get ∑(-1)n*(1)2n+1/(2n+1) = ∑(-1)n/(2n+1). This converges by alternating series test; I'll let you show the steps.
d) You know that tan(π/4) =1 so that tan-1(1) = π/4
So π/4 = tan-1(1). Use the fact that tan-1(x) = ∑(-1)n x2n+1/(2n+1) and plug in x =1.
Hope this helps!