Douglas B. answered 05/21/20
Calculus tutor with masters degree in applied math
If we integrate 1/(n (ln n)^(1/2)), we get (by using substitution) 2(ln n)^(1/2). Clearly, the limit as n goes to infinity diverges (upper bound of integral). So, the integral test tells us that because the integral diverges, the given infinite sum also diverges.