
Douglas B. answered 05/16/20
Linear algebra tutor with masters degree in applied math
Here are some informal explanations that show why the statements are true.
1.
First of all, we know that if v1,v2,...,vn are a basis for V, then for any nonzero v in V, there exists unique constants (not all zero) such that
c1v1+c2v2+...+cnvn = v. Immediately, this shows that v depends linearly on v1,v2,...,vn.
So, if I have a set {v1,v2,...,vn,v}, I know immediately that v depends on v1,v2,...,vn (and thus all the vectors in the set are linearly independent).
2.
Suppose that I have n vectors in my basis: v1,v2,...,vn. By definition, these vectors are linearly independent. In particular, vn cannot be written as a linear combination of v1,...,v(n-1). Thus, if my set is {v1,v2,...,v(n-1)}, then vn is in V, but outside the range of my set. Therefore, my set does not span V.