Fatima A.

asked • 05/13/20

Calculus:integrate (x ^ 2 * sin x)/(1 + x ^ 6) dx from -pi/2 to pi/2

integrate (x ^ 2 * sin x)/(1 + x ^ 6) dx from -pi/2 to pi/2

The answer is zero but can anyone please write the steps and tell what method he/she used?

1 Expert Answer

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Nelli D. answered • 05/13/20

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Fatima A.

Thank you so much! I understand now.. But still have one question if it was an even function why did you omit the endpoint -pi/2 and made the endpoints from zero to pi/2
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05/13/20

Nelli D.

Even functions are symmetric (parabola for example) with respect to the y-axis, so the integral from [-pi/2, pi/2]= integral [-pi/2, 0] + integral [0,pi/2] and the property of even function says that those two integrals with new boundary conditions are exactly the same, so that's why it can be written as 2times either one of the new two integrals. However, since it is much nicer to work with positive numbers, it is preferred to go with the integral that starts at 0. Hope this helps :)
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05/13/20

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