
Peter M. answered 05/07/20
Experienced math tutor
You can solve this using the binomial theorem.
P(0 hits) = (.3)^6 =.000729
P(1 hit) = 6(.7)(.3)^5 = .010206
P(2 hits) = 6C2 (.7)^2 (.3)^4 = .059535
You can take it from there
Dustin T.
asked 05/07/20more than two hits
two hits or less
exactly two hits
Peter M. answered 05/07/20
Experienced math tutor
You can solve this using the binomial theorem.
P(0 hits) = (.3)^6 =.000729
P(1 hit) = 6(.7)(.3)^5 = .010206
P(2 hits) = 6C2 (.7)^2 (.3)^4 = .059535
You can take it from there
Can use the binomial expansion of ( x+y)^6 with x representing hitting the target (p=.7) and y represents not hitting the target (p=0.3). You can get the coefficients of each of these terms using Pascals triangle or combinatorics
The term x^2 y^4 represents him hitting the target exactly twice. Coefficient of this term is 15 so this probability is 15 ( 0.7)^2 (0.3)^4= .0595
Two hits or less would be 2, 1 or no hits. We already have the probability of 2 hits
Probability of 1 hit is the x y^5 term. Coefficient of this term is 6 so probability of exactly 1 hit is
(6) (0.7) ( 0.3^5) = .010206
Probability of no hits is (0.3)^6 = .000729
If we add these three together we will get the probability of 2 hits or less
.0595 = .010206 + .000729= .072289 or 7.229%
Probability of more than 2 hits would be 100% - 7.229% =92.77%
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