
Todd M. answered 04/12/20
25 Year finance professional
Neither got it totally right but the first one is closer. Ultimately the PV of an annuity with a finite time period n is the same as the sum of n individual present value calculations. One key thing is the first payment is due now. That's time period zero and there is no discount to it - that's where the first answer is off. On a calculator you can just identify the variables and it will give you the PV but below is longhand to show where everything comes from.
Yr 0 = 4250 Yr 6 = 2754 Total = 35,339
Yr 1 = 3953 Yr 7 = 2562
Yr 2 = 3677 Yr 8 = 2383
Yr 3 = 3421 Yr 9 = 2217
Yr 4 = 3182 Yr 10 = 2062
Yr 5 = 2960 Yr 11 = 1918