Olivier G. answered 04/10/20
Math Tutor (K-12 + SAT + ACT + AP + Undergrad)
For x>0 we have cot-1(1/x)=tan-1(x). Therefore:
y=cot-1(x)+cot-1(1/x)=cot-1(x)+tan-1(x)=π/2
y'=0
For x<0 we have cot-1(1/x)=tan-1(x)+π. Therefore:
y=cot-1(x)+cot-1(1/x)=cot-1(x)+tan-1(x)+π=3π/2
y'=0
Therefore, for all x we have:
y'=0
Mo Y.
thanks sir04/16/20