Ahmad B. answered • 01/16/20
An investment in knowledge pays the best interest," B. Franklin
This could be modeled as a binomial problem, but if you do not have this knowledge, IT IS OKAY.
Let us first denote by p the probability of being defective, which is obviously p = 0.03.
It's complement is then 1-p=0.97 which is the probability of not being defective.
We are interested in the probability of at least 1 is defective, that is
P(X≥1)
where X is the number of defective CD's. By the complement rule, we have
P(X≥1) = 1 - P(X<1) = 1 - P(X = 0)
The probability that no one (out of the 10) is defective is the term P(X = 0), which is easily computed as
P(X = 0) = (0.97)^10 = 0.7374
Replacing we get the desired probability
P(X≥1) = 1 - 0.7374 = 0.2626
