
Lenny D. answered 07/21/19
Financial Professional with many years of Wall Street Experience
We Know Present Value = Payment * (1/r)(1- (1/(1+r))N Equation 1
We Also Know Future Value = Present Value *(1+r)N Equation 2
Equation 1 Can be rewritten as
PV = PMT(1/r)((1+r)N-1)/(1+r)N Call this Equation 1a
Now divide both sides of equation 2 by (1+r)N and Get
FV*(1/(1+r))N= PV = (1/(1+r))N((1+r)N-1)*(1/r)+PMT
There is a (1/(1+r))N on both sides of the equation so we can divide them out
and get
FV =(PMT/r)*((1+r)N-1)
Now divide both sides by (PMT/r) and get
rFV/PMT = (1+r)N-1
add 1 to both sides and get
rFV/PMT + 1= (1+r)N
With r = .02, PMT = 500 and FV = 11,000
we get .02*11,000/500 = (1.02)N
or 1.44 = (1.02)N
Take natural Logarithms of both sides and get
ln(1.44) = Nln(1.02) or N = ln(1.44)/ln(1.02) = 18.414 years.
As A Check, The PV of 11,000 discounted for 18.414 years at 2% is $7,638.84.
So this is the amount you could borrow if you wanted to make 500 dollar payments and would make those payments for 18.4 periods.
If you have any questions on discounting cash flows oe anything invoilovin finance or economics please reach out
Best,
Lenny