
Adam M. answered 08/14/19
Bachelor's in Engineering, Master's in Teaching, 12 Year Math Teacher
The probability of pulling a club is 1/4 because 1/4 of the deck is clubs (there are 4 suits). And since the problem indicates "with replacement," you will put the first card back and know that there is a 1/4 chance of pulling a spade, for the same reason. With 2 independent events (the first card draw did not affect the 2nd card draw), you simply multiply the two probabilities together... (1/4)(1/4) = 1/16 = 0.0625 but rounded to 3 sigfigs would be 0.063. But I would leave it as a fraction, because fractions are exact (0.063 is approximate).