Asked • 06/20/19

Do all modes make another mode when inverted?

I may just being going crazy but I was writing some music theory and noticed that if you reverse the whole steps and half steps of a mode it becomes another mode. (W= whole tones H= half tones) Example: Lydian is W W W H W W H Now when you reverse it you get this H W W H W W W Notice that this reversed scale shares the same sequence of steps as Locrian. Now what I'm trying to figure is if I may be on to something here. Does it mean with a Lydian scale you can get a Locrian sound out of it? I don't know if I'm over thinking or not.

2 Answers By Expert Tutors

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Nicholas C. answered • 06/27/19

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5 (21)

Berklee College of Music Grad for Music and ESL Tutoring!

Shannon N. answered • 06/24/19

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Experienced T.R.I.O tutor specializing in Music and Writing.

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