Does the bass note in a "slash" chord really have an associated interval?
I have a question about "slash" chords.
Look at the chord E/G:
<pre>
E G♯ B G
1 3 5 ?
</pre>
G is the minor 3rd interval (♭3) in the key of E.
However, I would have thought by definition chords cannot contain both minor and major thirds, so when looking at just the E major chord, can you really say the G is a ♭3?
The way I think about it, the G doesn't have a relationship to the rest of the notes in the E major chord. In the E/G chord, G is a tone that is played "over" the top of the underlying E major chord.
I wouldn't have thought the G necessarily *has* to be represented by an interval. I mean, the chord is called E/G not E/♭3.
To that point, my observation is that in all other chord names - the altered notes, or any other special notes - are represented by an interval. E.g. G♯ m(maj7)♯5
Slash chords are the only chord names (that I'm aware of) which extend the chord name with an additional *note*, not an interval. I was assuming that this was because there is not actually an interval associated with the slash note (in context of the underlying chord).
So... what is the correct way to think about the relationship of the G in E/G ?
Is it correct to say that G is a ♭3 interval in this chord, or do you say it doesn't have an interval in this context?
It is necessary to think of the 1/2 note interval (G# and G natural) as one that will create dissonance. A flatted second is also a flatted ninth. This flatted ninth is a standard interval used in jazz chords. I also think that the spread of octaves where the two Gs exist make it a less noticeable effect of major and minor together. Maybe it is about an arpeggio. If I remember correctly, you are expected to move quickly past the flatted 3rd so that it almost gets delivered as a "pickup" note. Check your note values and also someone else. It has been quite awhile since I learned of this relationship in intervals.
