Lenny D. answered • 05/21/19
Former professor at Tufts University with decades on Wall Street
+If the firm is a monopolist and these are two separate markets they will equate MC with MR in each market and price accordingly. Total Revenue = Q*P(q) in each market. For the first market that is 52Q -3Q^2 for the second market it is 120q-10Q^2 Marginal Revenue in Market 1 is the derivative of TR1 w/r/t Q = 52-6Q in Market 2 it is 120-20q.
Setting MC=MR for profit maximizing in Market 1 we have 52-6q = 10 or 6q= 42 or q1= 7. w pluq=7 into market 1 demand cure and get p = 52-3*(7) = 31. in Market 2 we 20 the same and see 120-20Q=10 or 20Q=110 or q = 5.5 Plugg 5.5 into the second countries demand curve and get P = 120-10*(5.5) = 65. So they will charge 65 in Market 2 and 31 in Market 1.
It may help to draw a graph of the demand curves in each market. Sketch in the marginal Revenue Curve. It intersects the Price(Y) axis at the same point as the demand curve. Then sketch a horizontal line at P=10 to represent the marginal cost in each market
